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Monday, June 30, 2008

Periodontics MCQ 11

Monday, June 30, 2008
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All of the following have shown some clinical correlation with periodontitis except:

  1. Cardiovascular disease

  2. Stroke

  3. Pernicious anemia

  4. Low birth weight babies

  5. Respiratory disease.

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Periodontics MCQ 09

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The hemiseptal defect is:


  1. A one-wall defect with one proximal wall

  2. A one-wall defect with one linguopalatal wall

  3. A one wall defect with one buccolabial wall

  4. A two walled defect with two proximal walls

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Periodontics MCQ 10

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Concerning grafts which of the following are TRUE.

  1. Osteoinductive is where the graft acts as a template for bone formation.

  2. Osteogenesis is where the graft stimulates new bone formation.

  3. Small particle size of 300 to 500 microns is advantageous.

  4. Osteoconductive is where the cells of the graft actually produce new bone.

5. Cortical bone is the best source of pluripotential osteogenic cells.

  1. Adequate vascularity is needed (intramarrow penetration with a ½ round

bur).

  1. A mechanically stable wound site-primary flap closure and

circumferential seal is necessary.

  1. Emdogain is enamel matrix proteins obtained from pigs.


    1. all are true

    2. 1,3,6,7 are true

    3. 1,2,3,4 are true

    4. 3,6,7,8 are true

    5. 4,5,6,8 are true

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Periodontics MCQ 08

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Which of the following statements are true regarding attachment levels and uprighting molars?


  1. Pockets mesial to uprighted molars are shallower than pockets mesial to control teeth that have not been uprighted.

  2. Gingival inflammation does not differ from that around control teeth.

  3. Trauma from occlusion with subsequent bone loss will occur with uprighted molars if selective equilibration is not performed.

  4. All of the above

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Periodontics MCQ 07

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What is the most significant challenge regarding anterior implants?



  1. Difficulty in being able to use a fixture with adequately large enough diameter due to lack of bone.

  2. Securing the proper angulation of the fixture

  3. Getting an esthetically acceptable shade with a single tooth anterior implant.

  4. Avoiding the “black triangle” in the papilla area due to lack of bony support to the gingival contours.

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Periodontics MCQ 05

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Page and Schroeder described several phases in the pathogenesis of periodontology; which one the statements is true?


  1. The initial lesion is described as a classic chronic exudative vasculitis.

  2. Within 4 to 10 days, the early lesion develops. It is characterized by a dense infiltrate of PMNs, pathologic alteration of fibroblasts, and an increase of the connective tissue substance

  3. The established lesion develops within 2 to 3 months and is distinguished by a predominance of plasma cells and early horizontal bone loss.

  4. In the advanced lesion, plasma cells continue to predominate although loss of the alveolar bone and periodontal ligament, and disruption of the tissue architecture with fibrosis are also important characteristics.


  1. 1 is correct

  2. 2 is correct

  3. 3 is correct

  4. 4 is correct

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Periodontics MCQ 06

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Which of the following statements regarding Guided Tissue Regenerations are true?

  1. Many teeth previously regarded as hopeless are salvageable via GTR using ePTFE

  2. Class II furcation involvements, large three-walled infrabony defects, and osseous craters are predictably treatable with Gore Tex GTR

  3. Routine uses of Gore Tex include two-walled defects and horizontal bone loss that may have been previously considered not salvageable

  4. EPTFE titanium is used in wide deep infrabony defects and are best treated with a prerequisite adequate band of attached gingiva

  5. Teeth that are amenable to Gore Tex membrane GTR include multirooted teeth with root proximity of greater than 1 mm

  6. Gore-Tex regenerative membranes can be placed in transgingival and submerged configurations

  1. 4 only

  2. 4 and 5 only

  3. 4, 5, 6

  4. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

  5. 1, 2, 4, 6

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Periodontics MCQ 04

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Surgical management of implant repair includes all but which of the following?


  1. Retreatment of ailing and failing implants depends on an accurate diagnosis and effective nonsurgical intervention to stabilize or arrest progression of an active perimplant lesion

  2. If mucogingival defects exist only around the ailing or failing implant, subsequent osseous surgery may not be needed if soft tissue augmentation is successfully performed

  3. The goals of perimplant surgical therapies are to reestablish a healthy perimucosal seal and regenerate a soft or hard tissue attachment to the implant.

  4. Regenerative procedures, including bone grafting with mandatory GTR, are most appropriate when the adjacent osseous crest is close to the rim of the implant in one-walled defects

  5. Detoxification procedures are recommended to treat the infected implant surfaces before regenerative modalities. This may include removal of rough or pitted HA coatings on the surface of the implant fixture.


  1. 1 is false

  2. 2 is false

  3. 3 is false

  4. 4 is false

  5. 5 is false

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Periodontics MCQ 03

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Callous formation forms during the fibroplasia stage of extraction site wound healing.


a. True
b. False

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Periodontics MCQ 01 and 02

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Read both parts, choose the best answer for each and make your selection below.


PART A: What is the most common antitarter ingredient in toothpaste?


a. Triclosan with PVM/MA (polyvinyl methyl ether malic acid)

b. Pentasodium Triphosphate

c. Tetrapotassium Pyrophosphate

d. Sodium hexametaphosphate


Part B: In regards to the above, what is the mode of action?


a. Affects polyglycans of bacteria which prevents plaque formation thus reducing tartar

b. Inhibits crystalline matrix formation preventing mineralization

c. Forms a coating on the tooth surface that inhibits calcification build -up

d. Prevents minerals from precipitating out of the saliva


  1. 1/4

  2. 2/1

  3. 3/2

  4. 4/3


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Sunday, June 29, 2008

Prosthodontics MCQ 53

Sunday, June 29, 2008
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Which of the following are incorrect for gypsum products?

  1. The smaller the water: powder ratio of the original investment water mixture, the less the hygroscopic setting expansion.

  2. As the mixing time is reduced, the hygroscopic expansion is decreased.

  3. The greatest amount of hygroscopic setting expansion is observed if the immersion takes place after the initial set.

  4. The longer the immersion of the investment in the water bath is delayed beyond the time of the initial set of the investment; the lower is the hygroscopic expansion.

  5. A mixture of silica and gypsum hemihydrate results in setting expansion greater than that of the gypsum product when it is used alone.

    1. 1 only

    2. 1 and 2

    3. 1 and 3

    4. 3 and 4

    5. 5 only

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Prosthodontics MCQ 52

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Which of the following factors concerning retention and resistance for single unit crowns are false?


  1. Over tapering of the opposing axial walls can be corrected if a band of several millimeters of tooth structure can be prepared circumferentially with a restricted taper of approximately 6 degrees.

  2. As taper increases, the free movement of the restoration will do so likewise, and reduce the retention.

  3. Molar crowns are more retentive than premolar crowns of similar taper.

  4. Typical placement for grooves in a single unit are mesial and distal.

  5. A 7/8 crown with grooves has more retention than a complete crown with no grooves.

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Prosthodontics MCQ 51

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Which one of the following is true regarding components of a removable partial denture?

  1. Major connectors should be flexible so that functional chewing forces are properly transmitted to the teeth and other tissues.

  2. A minor connector is the unit of the partial denture that connects the parts of the prosthesis located on one side of the arch with those on the other side.

  3. The linguoplate can in itself serve as an indirect retainer.

  4. Each direct retainer and each occlusal rest are joined to the major connector by a minor connector.

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Prosthodontics MCQ 50

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Regarding denture impressions, which of the following are true?

1. Definite pressure was advocated by many dentists as the best means for obtaining an ideal impression as it logically applied the same pressure as was being applied during chewing.

2. The mucostatic technique embodies the idea that the interfacial surface tension was the best way to retain dentures

3. The selective pressure concept embodies the principles of both pressure and mucostatic (nonpressure) procedures.

4. In selective pressure technique, the non-stress bearing areas are recorded with the least amount of pressure in certain areas of the maxillae and mandible that are capable of withstanding the forces of occlusion.

5. Low-fusing Impression waxes are not sufficiently accurate for a final impression.

    1. 1 and 3

    2. 1, 3, 4

    3. 1, 2, 3, 4

    4. 2 and 4

    5. All of the above.

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Prosthodontics MCQ 49

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Which of the following statements regarding the film thickness of dental luting cements includes are true?

    1. ADA Specification No. 8 Type I states that film thickness be 100 um (maximum).

    2. Zinc phosphate is generally the thickest of the luting agents

    3. Polycarboxylate cement has one of the highest compressive strengths, but, does not meet the maximum thickness guidelines.

    4. Polycarboxylate cements yields a film thickness of 25 um or less due to the action of spatulation and seating with a vibratory action to reduce the viscosity.

    5. Glass ionomer luting cements are a type I cement with a particle size of 15 um or less.

  1. 3 only

  2. 1 and 3

  3. 1 and 2

  4. 1, 2, 3

  5. 4 and 5

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Prosthodontics MCQ 48

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Which of the following are true regarding die spacers?

    1. No relief space is necessary when pouring dies with Type IV stone with gypsum hardener due to the percentage of dimensional change caused by hygroscopic expansion.

    2. The most common die spacers are epoxy die resin.

    3. One may substitute proprietary paint-on liquids, such as model paint, colored nail polish, or thermoplastic polymers dissolved in volatile solvents.

    4. Die spacers are placed to within 1.0 mm of the preparation finish line to provide relief for the luting agent.

  1. 1, 2, 3

  2. 2, 3, 4

  3. 1, 3, 4

  4. 3, 4

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Prosthodontics MCQ 47

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Researchers have reported that there is little association between the choice of zinc phosphate or glass ionomer cements and increased pulpal sensitivity when manufacturers’ recommendations were followed.

  1. True

  2. False


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Prosthodontics MCQ 46

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Which of the following statement regarding AP Rotational path RPD design are correct?

  1. In Rotational path, one portion of the RPD is placed first, while with a conventional path of placement all rests are seated more or less simultaneously.

  2. Adjustment of the rigid retentive component is necessary.

  3. Minimizes number of clasps.

  4. Tolerates error well.

  5. May be used as substitute to a long-span anterior FPD.

  6. Used in absence of lingual or facial undercuts in anterior abutment teeth in Kennedy class IV anterior abutment teeth.

        1. 3, 4, 5, 6

        2. 1, 2, 3, 5

        3. 2, 3, 5, 6

        4. 1, 3, 5, 6

        5. 1, 2, 3, 6

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Friday, June 27, 2008

Prosthodontics MCQ 44

Friday, June 27, 2008
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Stress-bearing areas are recorded with least amount of pressure and selective pressure is applied to the non-stress-bearing areas.

The places with less space or relief will transmit more pressure during the impression.

  1. Both statements are true.

  2. Both statements are false.

  3. The first statement is true, second statement is false.

  4. The first statement is false, second statement is true.

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Prosthodontics MCQ 45

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What impression material is most stable 24 hours later?

  1. Polysulfides

  2. Polyethers

  3. Addition silicones

  4. Condensation silicones

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Prosthodontics MCQ 42

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A slot is a retention groove whose length is in a horizontal plane and in dentin and a lock is a retention groove whose length is in a vertical plane and in dentin.

Gingival slots are placed in 0.5 mm pulpal of the DEJ, and at least 0.5 mm in depth and 1 or more mm in length depending on the distance between vertical walls.

  1. Both statements are true.

  2. Both statements are false.

  3. The first statement is true, second statement is false.

  4. The first statement is false, second statement is true.

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Prosthodontics MCQ 43

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Deflection of an FPD is proportional to the cube of its length. If the force on one pontic produced certain amount of deflection, the same force on a three pontics will produce eight times the distance of the deflection.

    1. True

    2. False

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Prosthodontics MCQ 41

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The quality of a preparation that prevents the restoration from being dislodged by the forces parallel to the path of the withdrawal is known as retention.

The resistance form of tooth preparation resists the lateral and oblique forces which tend to displace the restoration by causing rotation around the gingival margin.

    1. Both statements are true.

    2. Both statements are false.

    3. The first statement is true, second statement is false.

d. The first statement is false, second statement is true.



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Prosthodontics MCQ 40

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  1. Which are advantages of screw retained implant prosthesis?


  1. Corrections can easily be made for angular discrepancies between implant fixture and restoration.

  2. Can be more easily retrieved.

  3. Easy to obtain path of draw in multiple unit fixed partial dentures.

  4. Requires less total vertical space for restoration.

      1. 1,2

      2. 1,3

      3. 2,4

      4. all of the above

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Prosthodontics MCQ 39

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What all-ceramic porcelain system is strongest (in terms of flexural strength)?

a. Traditional powder slurry ceramics

b. Infiltrated ceramics /slip-cast (In-Ceram)

c. Heat pressed ceramics (Empress)

d. Castable glass ceramics (Dicor)

e. Machinable ceramics (Cerec)



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Prosthodontics MCQ 38

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What is the main purpose of a cast distal extension posterior metal stop?

    1. Provides for a more rigid RPD framework.

    2. Increases overall retention of the RPD to resist displacement.

    3. Provides a positive apical seat (tissue stop) for the RPD in function.

    4. Prevents bending of the distal extension framework during acrylic processing.

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Prosthodontics MCQ 37

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When using a kinematic facebow one should expect at least a 5mm error in recording the true hinge axis. The arbitrary facebow records an approximation of the true hinge axis by means of average measurements.

a. First statement is true, second is false.

  1. First statement is false, second is true.

  2. Both statements are true.

  3. Both statements are false.

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Prosthodontics MCQ 36

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Which functions are simple hinge articulators not capable of doing?

1. Two dimensional movements

2. Close customization of temporomandibular joint anatomy

3. Reproduction of side shifts

4. Accept facebow transfer


  1. 1 only

  2. 1,2,3

  3. 2,3,4

  4. 1,2,3,4

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Thursday, June 26, 2008

Prosthodontics MCQ 35

Thursday, June 26, 2008
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A patient with complete dentures makes tries to make “T” sounds but he makes a sound like “Th”. What is the most likely cause?


a. Anterior palate too broad.

b. Inadequate interocclusal distance.

c. Poor retention of dentures.

d. Overextended maxillary posterior border.

e. Maxillary premolars too far mesially.



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Prosthodontics MCQ 34

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Which are advantages of polyether impression materials?

  1. Fast setting and good for undercuts

  2. Fast setting, good shelf life (two years), multiple pours

  3. Very flexible and good for deep undercuts

  4. Slow setting with prolonged working time

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Prosthodontics MCQ 33

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Lingualized occlusion uses anatomic maxillary teeth opposing mandibular monoplane teeth. Lingualized occlusion can be indicated for skeletal Class II and III patients.

a. Both statements are true

  1. Both statements are false

  2. Statement one is true and two is false

  3. Statement two is true and one is false

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Prosthodontics MCQ 32

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Electrosurgery units will work without a grounding plate. Grounding plates are only necessary if a metal restoration might be contacted.

a. Both statements are true

  1. Both statements are false

  2. Statement one is true and two is false

  3. Statement two is true and one is false

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Prosthodontics MCQ 31

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Double abutments can be used as a means of overcoming problems created by unfavorable crown to root ratios. Since there are two abutments acting together it is not necessary for additional abutment to have as much root surface as the first abutment.

    1. Both statements are true

    2. Both statements are false

    3. Statement one is true and two is false

    4. Statement two is true and one is false

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Prosthodontics MCQ 29

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The only universally flexible clasp shape is the round form. Half round will flex away form the tooth.

      1. Both statements are true

      2. Both statements are false

      3. Statement one is true and two is false

      4. Statement two is true and one is false

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Prosthodontics MCQ 30

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Centric relation is defined as:

  1. The position in which the condyle is in the most superior anterior position in the articular fossa with the thinnest portion of the disk between the condyle and the fossa.

  2. The position in which the condyle is in the most superior retruded position in the articular fossa with the thinnest portion of the disk between the condyle and the fossa.

  3. The position in which the condyle is in the most superior retruded position in the articular fossa with the thickest portion of the disk between the condyle and the fossa.

  4. The position in which the condyle is in the most inferior retruded position in the articular fossa with the thickest portion of the disk between the condyle and the fossa.

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Prosthodontics MCQ 28

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What percentage and type of patient’s have clicking and what percentage have crepitus?


1. Generally about 40-75% of the population have one sign of joint dysfunction. It is possible that joint sounds can be found in 50% of the non-patient population

2. Several studies report that progression of intracapsular disorders as determined by joint sounds only occurs in 7-9% of patients.

3. de Leeuw study showed that sounds persisted in 54% of patients who had nonsurgical management of intracapsular disorders-yet none had any discomfort or dysfunction.

4. Men usually have more symptoms such as headaches, clicking, TMD tenderness and muscle tenderness.

5. Signs and symptoms in kids’ increases in frequency with age, joint sounds can be heard 17.5% of the time. The clicking can come and go over a five year period.

  1. A. 1,2,3 are true
  2. B. All are true
  3. C. 1,2,3,5 are true
  4. 3,4,5 are true
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Wednesday, June 25, 2008

Prosthodontics MCQ 27

Wednesday, June 25, 2008
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What muscles are involved with border molding for a complete denture mandibular final impression?

a. Buccinator, masseter, mylohyoid, palatoglossal, medial pterygoid and the superior constrictor muscle

b. Buccinator, masseter, mylohyoid, palatoglossal, and the genioglossus muscle

c. Buccinator, masseter, mylohyoid, hyoglossus and the superior constrictor muscle

d. Buccinator and masseter

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Prosthodontics MCQ 26

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In respects to pontic design, order the following according to decreasing esthetics? a. Modified Ridge-lap, Conical, Ovate, Saddle, Sanitary

b. Saddle, Modified Ridge-lap, Conical, Sanitary, Ovate

c. Modified Ridge-lap, Ovate, Conical, Saddle, Sanitary

d. Ovate, Modified Ridge-lap, Saddle, Conical, Sanitary

e. Ovate, Modified Ridge-lap, Conical, Saddle, Sanitary

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Prosthodontics MCQ 25

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When restoring two edentulous spaces on either side of a pier abutment it is beneficial to employ a stress breaker. If you intend to restore a missing #7 and #9 with a 5 unit FPD abutted on #’s 6, 8, and 10, where would you employ the components of the stress breaker


a. Key on distal of #9 pontic, keyway on mesial of #10 abutment
b. Key on mesial of #7 pontic, keyway on distal of #8 abutment
c. Key on mesial of #9 pontic, keyway on mesial of #8 abutment
d. Key on distal of #8 abutment, keyway on mesial of #7 pontic
e. Key on mesial of #8 abutment, keyway on mesial of #9 pontic
f. Key on distal of #10 abutment, keyway on mesial of #9 pontic

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Prosthodontics MCQ 24

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Post denture insertion pain – everything is sore – Why?

  1. Over extended borders
  2. Acrylic monomer allergy
  3. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion
  4. Insufficient vertical dimension of occlusion
  5. Occlusal prematurity
  1. 1, 2, 3, 4

  2. 1, 3, 4,

  3. 1, 2, 3, 5

  4. 1, 3, 5

  5. 1, 3, 4, 5

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Prosthodontics MCQ 23

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When replacing a missing cuspid with an FPD, occlusion should be shared with the first bicuspid (i.e. Group function). When replacing a missing cuspid with an FPD, occlusion should remain only on the cuspid (i.e. Canine guidance)

  1. Both statements are true
  2. Both statements are false
  3. First statement is true, second statement is false
  4. First statement is false, second statement is true
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Prosthodontics MCQ 22

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The signs of Ellsworth / Kelly Combination Syndrome are:

  1. Papillary hyperplasia

  2. Maxillary tuberosity growth

  3. Ridge resorption of mandibular posterior

  4. Ridge resorption of anterior maxilla

  5. Hyper-eruption of mandibular anterior teeth

  1. 1, 2, 4, 5

  2. 2, 4, 5

  3. 2, 3, 4, 5
  4. All of the above
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Prosthodontics MCQ 21

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After surveying your diagnostic casts you determine your RPD design and the necessary alterations. The design is then drawn on the cast and you are now ready to make tooth modifications. In what sequence will you follow?


a. Heights of contour / guiding planes / rest seats / diagnostic impression

b. Guiding planes/ diagnostic impression / heights of contour / rest seats

c. Guiding planes / heights of contour / rest seats / diagnostic impression

d. Guiding planes/ heights of contour / diagnostic impression / rest seats



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Prosthodontics MCQ 20

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Which of the following are true concerning resin-bonded bridge designs?

1. Contraindications would be mutually protected occlusion (with a canine guidance), more than one pontic, and bruxism.

2. A cingulum rest or an occlusal rest is needed to provide a vertical stop.

3. A single path of insertion, with parallel grooves.

4. 120o of encirclement with a centric occlusal contact only.

5. Resistance form, a shallow chamfer at a depth of .25 to .5 mm.

a. 1,2,3 are true.

b. 3,4,5 are true.

c. All are true.

d. 2,3,5 are true.

e. 1,3,5 are true.

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Prosthodontics MCQ 19

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Which of the following is/are true concerning Kennedy’s/Applegates rules?

1. Kennedy class 1 involves bilateral edentulous areas posterior to the natural teeth while a Class II has a unilateral edentulous area posterior to the natural teeth.

2. Kennedy Class 3 always has one unilateral edentulous area with teeth posterior to it. A Class 4 has a single edentulous area crossing the midline and anterior to natural teeth.

3. You may have up to 2 mods only in a Kennedy Class 4 case.

4. If a second or third molar is missing and is not to be replaced it is not considered in Applegate's rules. If to be replaced it will determine the class.

5. Modifications are those areas other than the those that determine the classification and are designated by their number.

  1. All the above are true
  2. None are true
  3. 1,2,3 are true
  4. 1,4,5 are true
  5. 3,4,5 are true
  6. 1,4 are true.

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Prosthodontics MCQ 18

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Which of the following is/are a likely cause of sore spots on the ridges from both dentures after delivery?

a. Inaccurate denture base

b. Malocclusion

c. Excessive peripheral seal

d. Overextension of the borders

e. Excessive vertical dimension

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Tuesday, June 24, 2008

Oro-Maxillofacial Surgery MCQ 27

Tuesday, June 24, 2008
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Incision and Drainage is indicated under the following conditions:



a. When facial swelling is present

b. When cellulitis is present

c. involvement of facial spaces

d. when a traceable fistula is present

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Oro-Maxillofacial Surgery MCQ 26

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32. Which would not be a hallmark of a Phoenix Abscess?




a. Pain with slight to large swelling.

b. Radiographic lucency.

c. Negative EPT.

d. Exquisitely percussion sensitive.

e. Intact lamina dura.



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Pharmacology MCQ 04

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Which antibiotic is indicated for management of Penicillin allergic patients with a serious anaerobic bacterial infection?

a) Augmentin

b) Erythromycin

c) Clindamycin with Flagyl

d) Keflex

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 19

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Which percentage most correct for the amount of gutta percha in dental gutta percha?


a. 19-22%

b. 56-75%

c. 2-17%

d. 1-4%

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 18

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A patient presents with a radiolucency on a non-angulated periapical film of tooth #5 that appears to be superimposed over both roots. A second film is taken but horizontally angulated more from the distal of #5. One of the roots appears to have moved mesially, while the radiolucency and one root stayed in place. Which root is most likely affected?


a) Buccal

b) Lingual

c) Both B and L

d) Neither

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 17

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Ultrasonic instruments allow better access during apical root preparations.

Use of burs in the apical root end surgery yields more conservative preparations.

a) The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE.

b) The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE.

c) Both statements are TRUE.

d) Both statements are FALSE.

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Pharmacology MCQ 02

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When the patient is taking Amoxicillin for some other reason, prophylaxis is not necessary.

    • True.

    • False.

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Pharmacology MCQ 03

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Followings are the indications for SBE Prophylaxis on high and moderate-risk patients (prosthetic valves, previous bacterial endocarditic, congenital cardiac malformations, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, rheumatic heart disease, and MVP with regurgitation) EXCEPT:

    1. Dental extractions

    2. Periodontal procedures including scaling and root planning, probing and recall maintenance

    3. Dental implant placement and reimplantation of avulsed teeth

    4. Endo treatment or surgery only beyond the apex

    5. Local anesthetic injections (nonintraligamentary)
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Monday, June 23, 2008

Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 16

Monday, June 23, 2008
0 comments

EDTA is a chelating agent that:

    1. Lubricates

    2. Emulsifies

    3. Holds debris in suspension

    4. Removes smear layer

    5. All of the above

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 15

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Danger zone is defined by Abou-Rass, Frank and Glick as the thin area in the root canal wall that is vulnerable to stripping by injudicious filling.

Danger zone is located at mandibular first molar mesial root, 1.5mm below the furcation about 1.3mm thick on the distal surface.


    1. Both statements are true.

    2. Both statements are false.

    3. The first statement is true, second statement is false.

    4. The first statement is false, second statement is true.

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 14

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What is the goal of root end surgery?


  1. Provide an apical seal
  2. Prevent leakage of potential irritants from the root canal into the periradicular tissues
  3. Remove the necrotic apical 3mm of tooth structure.
  4. Curettage of the periapical osseous necrotic tissue

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 13

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Which of the following statements regarding flap reflection is correct?


  1. The horizontal incision for the mucogingival flap is made perpendicular to the cortical bone.

  2. The rectangular flap design is most appropriate in the posterior areas.

  3. The mucogingival flap with an anterior-releasing incision is preferred in posterior areas.

  4. The type of vertical-releasing incision distinguishes the mucogingival flab from the Luebke-Oschsenbein flap.

  5. The semilunar flap has the advantage of providing an esthetic result without scar formation.

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 12

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Which of the following statements are true regarding access preparation?

1. The objective of entry is to give direct access to the pulp chamber, not merely the canal orifices.

2. Access cavity preparations are similar to operative occlusal preparations

3. The likely interior anatomy of a tooth under treatment need not be determined before entry since unroofing will reveal canal orifice locations.

4. The rubber dam should always be placed before initial access preparation.


  1. All of the above

  2. None of the above

  3. 1 and 4

  4. 1 and 3

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 11

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What is the success rate of endodontic treatment?


  1. 50%

  2. 40%

  3. 53-94%

  4. 40-95%

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 10

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The major reason for failure, requiring retreatment, is which of the following?


  1. Persistent pain

  2. Draining sinus tract

  3. Restorative indications

  4. Microleakage

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 09

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The posterior tooth with the highest endodontic failure rate is the:


a .Mandibular 1st molar

b .Mandibular 2nd molar

c. Maxillary 2nd molar

d. Maxillary 1st molar

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Oro-Maxillofacial Surgery MCQ 25

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Which of the following statements regarding the use of intra-osseous anesthesia are accurate:


a. Epinephrine concentration of anesthetic agent should not exceed 1:200,000

b. Mandibular injections should be preceded by conventional block anesthesia

c. X-tip injections at the angle of the mandible area should be avoided

d. Total volume of anesthetic should not exceed 1 carpule


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Saturday, June 21, 2008

Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 08

Saturday, June 21, 2008
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ISO file diameters progressively increase by 0.050 from size No.8 to 90. Regardless of file length ISO 21mm, 25mm, or 31mm, they all have a 16mm fluted cutting surface.


  1. Both statements are true

  2. First statement is true, second statement is false

  3. First statement is false, second statement is true

  4. Both statements are false

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 07

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Files are used in endodontic preparation to:


  1. Clean the canal system

  2. Shape the canal system

  3. Improve access to canal system

  4. Facilitate obturation


    1. All of the above

    2. 1, 2, 3

    3. 1, 2, 4

    4. 2, 3, 4

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 06

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For which of the following scenarios is thermoplastic gutta percha technique potentially beneficial over standard lateral compaction?


  1. When the canals are curved.

  2. When there are irregularities in the canal system.

  3. When there is an open apex.

  4. When the canal system is perfectly prepared .

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 05

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A patient arrives at your office in severe pain on mandibular right with cellulitis of the buccal mucosa and trismus limited to an opening of 5mm. Intraorally you visualize swelling buccal to #30, which when tested is extremely percussion and palpation sensitive with an EPT of no response at 80/80. With much skill you negotiate radiographic file into position and identify a large periradicular radiolucency associated with #30. What is your anesthetic technique of choice?


  1. Inferior alveolar nerve block

  2. Auricular-temporal extra oral injection technique

  3. Akinosi technique

  4. Gow-Gates technique

  5. Rx of felxaril to relax muscular complex then attempt anesthesia

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 04

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The incidence of external root resorption is increased when heat is applied to the Superoxyl while in the chamber. The incidence of external resorption is increased when Superoxyl placed apical to the level of the CEJ.


  1. Both statements are true

  2. First statement is true, second statement is false

  3. First statement is false, second statement is true

  4. Both statements are false

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Dental Microbiology MCQ 02

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Which of the following are true regarding host defense response to the threat of microbial invasion from the root canal?


  1. The plasma cells are the front line fighting force against bacteria.

  2. The T-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes and natural killer cells are primary cells of importance in chronic inflammation and immunity

  3. Plasma cells are the only cells that can manufacture and secrete antibodies

  4. PMNs have a life of 8-10 days and die in great numbers at acute inflammatory sites

  5. The accumulation and local death of neutrophils is a major cause for tissue breakdown in chronic phases of apical periodontitis


  1. 1 only is correct

  2. 2 only is correct

  3. 3 only is correct

  4. 2, 4, and 5 are correct

  5. All of the above are correct

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Dental Microbiology MCQ 01

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Which of the following are true regarding microorganisms associated with endodontic disease?


  1. The vast majority of endodontic infections contain anaerobic bacteria

  2. Kobayashi found similar bacteria from caries infections as were found in root canals

  3. Tissue fluid, necrotic pulp tissue, low-oxygen tension, and bacterial by-products determine which bacteria will predominate

  4. Teeth requiring endodontic retreatment have shown a prevalence of Streptococcus faecalis.

  5. Facultative bacteria are predominant in the initial infections of root canals.


  1. 1 and 3 only

  2. 1, 3, and 5

  3. 1, 2 and 4

  4. 2 and 4

  5. 1, 3 and 4

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 03

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Which of the following are true of the crown-down technique?


1. To enlarge the coronal 1/3 of the canal preparation.

2. To enlarge the apical 1/3 of the canal to properly fit the master cone of gutta percha.

3.To use a sequential series of instruments, starting with the smaller sizes and progressing toward the larger sizes, irrespective of the instruments series used.

4. To use a series of instruments whereby one begins with larger sizes and progresses towards the smaller sizes.

5. NiTi rotary-shaping files are best.

6. ISO hand files and GGs are best.


Answers:

  1. 1, 3, 5

  2. 1, 3, 6

  3. 2 and 5

  4. 3 and 6

  5. 4 and 5

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Conservative and Endodontics MCQ 02

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Which are of the following are true of the balanced-force technique?


  1. Balanced force uses three distinct phases that comprise the instrument cycle.

  2. Phase I involves the use of ultrasonic pre-debridement of the coronal 1/3.

  3. Phase III involves flute loading.

  4. The file is withdrawn after two to three dozen rapid rotations of the file.

  5. The balanced force involves file cutting at the apical extent of the file and not along its length

    1. 1 only

    2. 1, 2, 3

    3. 1, 3, 4, 5

    4. 2, 3, 4, 5

    5. 1, 3, 5

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Oro-Maxillofacial Surgery MCQ 24

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23 year-old healthy male patient’s maxillary central incisor was avulsed less than one hour ago. The avulsed tooth was stored in milk since the incident. The radiograph and clinical exam showed no sign of fracture of alveolar socket. Treatment of choice is Doxicycline 100mg BID for 7 days, Chlorhexidine mouthrinse (0.1%) BID for 1 week and:


  1. Reimplant after rinsing with saline, flexible splint for 7 days, followed by RCT in 7-10 days with Ca(OH)2 as an intra-canal medicament.
  2. Soak the avulsed tooth in pH5.5, 2.4% Sodium Fluoride for minimum of 5 minutes, flexible splint for 7 days, followed by NSRCT in 7-10 days with Ca(OH)2 as an intra-canal medicament.
  3. Complete NSRCT extra-orally, reimplant and stabilize for 3 weeks.
  4. Reimplantation is not indicated.
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